Did congress intend the court's inherent powers and U.S. 28 U.S.C. § 1927 to apply extraterritorially allowing Rule 44.1 analysis to be applied to overseas conduct or are federal courts prohibited by the presumption from disregarding a sovereign's official domestic acts under the Act-of-State Doctrine.

Did congress intend a federal court's inherent powers and those under 28 U.S.C. § 1927 to impose punitive sanctions for extraterritorial conduct without regard to full due process protections before a federal court for conduct claimed to be criminal under a sovereign's law.

Where a party has been directed to arbitration can the district court dismiss their claims and award monetary sanction without a causal connection to bad faith conduct.

Did Congress intend the court's inherent powers and 28 U.S.C. § 1927 to apply extraterritorially, allowing Rule 44.1 analysis to be applied to overseas conduct or are federal courts prohibited by the presumption from disregarding a sovereign's official domestic acts under the Act-of-State Doctrine?