1. Is it not true that "STATE OF CALIFORNIA" and all of its instruments are bound to the Matters declared via Article V, clause a, Constitution of the United States?

2. Is it not true that statutes expressing jurisdiction for the courts to satisfy settled due process requirements?

3. Is it not true that Art. II, 2, cl.1 of Constitution embraces both civil and criminal cases jurisdiction to hear such case/causa/section?

4. Is it not true that when a defendant/respondent/doe has no property in said forum state, has no "minimum connections" with said forum state and does not consent via statute are not satisfied, then such court is without valid personal jurisdiction to hear the case/cause/action?

5. Is it not true that to impose its capitation upon Doe who does not enjoy any representation in such state, is not a resident of such state and does not consent to such capitation?

6. Is it not true that the state's Constitution prohibits?

7. Is it not true that law/equity sanction & court to render full disclosure regarding a judgment it pronounce and enter, to the Doe upon whom such judgment is imposed?

Is the writ true that the Constitution and all of its instruments are bound to the matters declared via Article IV, clause 3, Constitution of the United States?